Nation Testing Agency (NTA) successfully conducted UGC NET December 2018 examination in various shifts. NTA has also changed the syllabus for paper 1 and paper 2. here we are giving NTA UGC NET QUESTION PAPER 1 DECEMBER 2018 with answer key. the question paper of UGC NET exam held on 24th December 2018 is given here. Total number of question asked in paper 1 is 50. Question paper pattern was totally different as compare to previous year examinations. UGC NET july 2018 paper 2 subject wise answer key click here


Total time given for paper 1 and paper 2 is 3 hours. paper 1 consists 50 multiple type questions. Breakup of questions as below.

-> Computer Knowledge 5 questions.

-> English Comprehension 5 questions

-> Data Interpretation 5 questions

-> Reasoning 10 questions like age, Venn diagram,mismatch, etc.

-> 25 questions like Research aptitude, Environment, General science, Current affairs etc.



Q.1. which among the following is the best field of study to improve the ability of students Experiment and analyse ?
1. History
2. Languages
3. Economics
4. Science
Answer: 4

Q.2. which among the following reflects best the quality of teaching in a classroom ?
1. Through the use of many teaching aids in the classroom
2. Through the quality of questions asked by students in classroom
3. Through full attendance in the classroom
4. Through observation of silence by the students in classroom
Answer: 2

Q.3. Artifacts that arise and affect the internal validity in research are:
(a) History
(b) Randomization
(c) Maturity
(d) Instrumentation
(e) Experimental mortality
(f) matching

1. (a) , (b) , (c) and (d)
2. (b) , (c) , (d) and (f)
3. (a) , (c) , (d) and (e)
4. (d) , (e) , (f) and (b)
Answer: 3

Q.4. Formulation of a research problem depends on:
(a) What is the object behind the researcher’s choice?
(b) What are the specific questions?
(c) What is the conceptual model?
(d) What negative factors to research upon?
(e) Reasons for unlimiting the study.
(f) Construction of hypotheses.

1. (a) , (c) , (e) and (f)
2. (c) , (d) , (e) and (f)
3. (b) , (c) , (d) and (e)
4. (a) , (b) , (c) and (f)
Answer: 4

Q.5. Among the following which one is not an instructional material ?
1. Audio podcast
2. YouTube video
3. Printed study guide
4. Overhead projector
Answer: 4

Q.6. Suppose as a teacher you are training your students in public speaking and debate. Which among the following is most difficult to develop among the students ?
1. Control over emotions
2. Concept formulation
3. Using / selecting appropriate language
4. Voice modulation
Answer: 1

Q.7. Which among the following is best advantage of choice based credit system ?
1. Shift in focus from teacher-centric to student-centric education
2. Improving classroom attendance
3. Helping teacher to complete syllabus on time
4. Reducing examination anxiety among students
Answer: 1

Q.8. The components of a research design are:
(a) Comparison
(b) control
(c) Reactivity
(d) manipulation
(e) Non representativeness
(f) generalization

1. (c) , (d) , (e) and (f)
2. (a) , (c) , (e) and (f)
3. (b) , (c) , (d) and (e)
4. (a) , (b) , (d) and (f)
Answer: 4

Q.9. The four major operations in scientific research are :
(a) Demonstration of co-variance
(b) Elimination of spurious relations
(c) Sequencing in terms of time order
(d) self-education
(e) Operationalization of personal choice
(f) Theorization

1. (a) , (b) , (c) and (d)
2. (c) , (d) , (e) and (f)
3. (a) , (b) , (c) and (f)
4. (b) , (c) , (d) and (e)
Answer: 3

Q.10. A variable that is manipulated is known as :
1. Dependent variable
2. Control variable
3. Independent variable
4. Confounding variable
Answer: 3

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 11 to 15:
Singapore has long advocated for India to take up its role as an integral part of the region. It is gratifying to see how Asean – India relations have grown during the past 25 years. In 1991, when the Cold War ended and India began its economic liberalization, Singapore saw an opportunity to deepen ties and build on its historical and cultural links with the Asian region. Singapore pushed for India to become a full Asean dialogue partner in 1995 and join the EAS in 1995 and since then, Asean – India ties have strengthened. All in all, around 30 platforms for co-operation exist, including seven ministerial dialogues and the Annual Leader Summit. However, there is scope for more and it is a must. For instance, there are tremendous opportunities in enhancing physical and digital connectivity between India and Asian. Asian is committed to strengthening land , air and sea linkages with India. These linkages will enhance people-to-people flows, as well as boost business , investment and tourism. The India-Myanmar-Thailand trilateral highway will connect India’s Northeast to mainland Southeast Asia. While one can fly directly between India and several Asian countries, there is still much room to expand air links to support growing business and tourism. Beyond physical linkages, digital connectivity Is the new frontier in the Fourth Industrial Revolution. India has made great progress in innovation, Start-ups and digital inclusion. There are opportunities to apply initiatives such as Aadhaar in our region. E-commerce and FinTech are two other areas potential collaboration. As an economic hub, Singapore can serve as a springboard to launch these ideas to Southeast Asia and beyond. India’s role in Asian should be anchored by growing economic ties with Singapore. The economic integration involving 16 countries with one-third of global GDP and trade will create an integrated Asian market.

Q.11. Who can be India’s Launchpad for an integrated Asian market as per the passage ?
1. Southwest Asia
2. Thailand
3. Singapore
4. Myanmar
Answer: 3

Q.12. The areas of collaboration between India and Asian are :
(a) FinTech
(b) Aadhaar
(c) e-commerce
(d) Digital backwardness
(e) Trilateral highways
(f) Fourth industrial revolution
1. (b) , (c) , (d) and (e)
2. (a) , (b) , (c) and (d)
3. (a) , (c) , (e) and (f)
4. (c) , (d) , (e) and (f)
Answer: 2

Q.13. The commitment of Asian with India is :
1. Offer political platforms
2. More and more dialogues
3. Improving transport links
4. Hold leadership summits
Answer: 3

Q.14. What is needed to encourage tourism between India and Asian ?
1. Waterways
2. Innovation
3. Air links
4. Start-ups
Answer: 3

Q.15. What prompted Singapore to opt for stronger ties with India ?
1. Historical past
2. End of cold war
3. geo-political equations
4. Economic liberalization in India
Answer: 4

Q.16. The next term in the series 0, 1, 9, 36, 100, ______ is :
1. 216
2. 164
3. 196
4. 225
Answer: 4

Q.17. In the digital era, there is a fear that classroom communication may result in :
1. Passive adaptation
2. Quick adaptation
3. Stimulation
4. Over-stimulation
Answer: 4

Q.18. Under which of the conditions an argument may be valid ? select the correct answer from the code given below :
(a) when its conclusion and premises are true
(b) Even when its conclusion and one or more of its premises are false
(c) Only when its conclusion is true
1. (c) alone
2. (a) and (b)
3. (a) and (c)
4. (a) alone
Answer: 2

Q.19. Jenifer’s father-in-law is my brother. Helen is a grand-daughter of my mother. How is Helen related to Jenifer?
1. Daughter-in-law
2. Sister
3. Sister-in-law
4. Mother
Answer: 3

Q.20. Truth and falsity are attributes of:
1. Debates
2. Propositions
3. Opinions
4. Arguments
Answer: 2

Q.21. Negative criticism as an element of classroom communication will lead to:
(a) External sympathy
(b) justification
(c) Defensiveness
(d) de-motivation
(e) Supportive listening
(f) confrontational empathy
1. (b), (c) and (d)
2. (d), (e) and (f)
3. (a), (b) and (c)
4. (c), (d) and (e)
Answer: 1

Q.22. the rhetorical approach in classroom communication considers teachers as _____ agents of students.
1. Influencing
2. Non-official
3. Academic
4. Official
Answer: 1

Q.23. Assertion (A) : Teacher communication is central to classroom management.
Reason (R) : Teacher communication behaviors should not be used to regulate the classroom
Behavior of students.

1. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
2. Both (A) and (R) are true.
3. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
4. (A) is true, but (R) is false
Answer: 4

Q.24. Among the following, there are two statements which can’t be true together, but can be false together. Select the code that represents them.
Statements :
(a) All poets are dreamers.
(b) No poets are dreamers.
(c) Some poets are dreamers.
(d) Some poets are not dreamers.

1. (a) and (b)
2. (b) and (d)
3. (a) and (d)
4. (c) and (d)
Answer: 1

Q.25. Non-verbal communication is considered :
1. Formal
2. Culture-free
3. Informal
4. Precise
Answer: 3

Q.26. Given below are two premises (a) and (b). Four conclusions are drawn from them. Select the code that states validly drawn conclusion(s). [Taking the premises individually or jointly]

Premises :
(a) all judges are lawyers.
(b) no doctors are lawyers.

Conclusions :
(1) no lawyers are doctors.
(2) no doctor are judges.
(3) all lawyers are judges.
(4) some doctor are judges.

1. (1) and (3)
2. (1) and (2)
3. (1) and (4)
4. (2) and (3)
Answer: 2

Q.27. If ABODE is coded as ADRHJ, then the code for AGRO will be :
Answer: 2

Q.28. Choose the word which is different from the rest:
1. Mount Kilimanjaro
2. Shivalik Hills
3. Aravali Hills
4. Nilgiri Hills
Answer: 1

Q.29. Which one of the following can be validly inferred from the proposition – “all animals are wild” ?
1. No non-animals are wild.
2. Some animals are not wild.
3. No animals are wild.
4. Some animals are wild.
Answer: 4

Q.30. The next term in the letter series DEF, HIJ, LMN, PQR, TUV, ______ IS :
1. XYZ
2. WYZ
3. WXY
4. YZA
Answer: 1


Try to attempt non mathematical question within 30 minute then attempt English and aptitude.

statepercentage of village no electrified

Based on the above table, answer Q31, Q32, Q33

Q.31. How many States have atleast 50% or more electrified villages ?
1. 3
2. 2
3. 4
4. 1
Answer: 3

Q.32. Which State has twice the percentage of electrified villages in comparison to State D ?
1. State A
2. State C
3. State B
4. State D
Answer: 2

Q.33. In the year 2000, the total number of villages in State D was 15,000. In the year 2010, the total number of villages had increased to 20,000 out of which 10,000 villages were yet to be electrified.
The % of villages not electrified in 2010 in state D has thus_______.

1. Not enough dat
2. Gone up
3. Come down
4. Cannot be computed
Answer: 3


Based on the Table given above, answer Q34 and Q35

Q.34. If the population for state F is 2.6 lakhs ,what is the population below education index ?
1. 51000 lakhs
2. 3900 lakhs
3. 0.39 lakhs
4. 49000 lakhs
Answer: 3

Q.35. If the total population of state was 5 lakhs while the population in state B was 2 lakhs, the number of people below education index will be :
1. Cannot be calculated
2. Higher in State A
3. Equal in State A and B
4. Higher in State B
Answer: 2

Q.36. The output quality of a printer is measured by :
1. Dots per cm
2. Dots per inch
3. Dots per mm
4. Digits per inch
Answer: 2

Q.37. _________ denotes an error in a computer program.
1. Bug
2. Virus
3. Spam
4. Bit
Answer: 1

Q.38. In which part of India, the tropical Western Ghats are situated ?
1. Rajasthan
2. Gujarat
3. Punjab
4. Kerala
Answer: 3

Q.39. the University Grants Commission has a scheme for “Human Rights and Values in Education”. Under this scheme, which statement is incorrect among the following for ‘Human Rights and Duties Education’ component
1. To encourage research activities
2. To sensitize the citizens so that the norms and values of human rights are realized.
3. To establish value and wellness centers in schools
4. To develop interaction between society and educational institutions.
Answer: 3

Q.40. The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high compared to coastal areas. What is/are the reason(s)?
(a) Thermal difference between land and water.
(b) Variations in altitude between continents and oceans.
(c) Presence of strong winds in the interior.
(d) Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coastal region.
1. (a) and (b) only
2. (b) and (c) only
3. (a) only
4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: 3

Q.41. The University Grants Commission (UGC) was formally inaugurated on 28 December 1953 by whom among the following ?
1. Sh. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
2. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
3. Mrs. Indira Gandhi
4. Dr. S. Radhakrishan
Answer: 1

Q.42. A source of renewable power which can be developed with minimum cost is :
1. Wind mills
2. Tidal power
3. Biomass power
4. Geothermal energy
Answer: 3

Q.43. A small text file stored on user’s computer by some websites in order to recognize and keep track of user’s preferences is called :
1. Cookie
2. Report
3. Log
4. History
Answer: 1

Q.44 How much carbon is being added to the atmosphere by burning of fossil fuels ?
1. 6-9 billion tons
2. 9-12 billion tons
3. 4-6 billion tons
4. 2-6 billion tons
Answer: 1

Q.45. Natural vegetation of an area needs to be preserved for the future, mainly for the purpose of :
1. Providing habitat for birds
2. Preventing soil erosion
3. Providing material for breeding new species
4. Study by scientists
Answer: 3

Q.46. In which year Education Commission under the Chairmanshop of Dr. D.s. Kothari was set up ?
1. 1960
2. 1955
3. 1952
4. 1964
Answer: 4

Q.47. Which of the following was launched in 2013 with the purpose to provide strategic funding to eligible state higher educational institutions ?
1. Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan
2. All India Council for Technical Education
3. Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan
4. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
Answer: 3

Q.48. Which of the following are audio file formats ?
(a) .wav (b) .aac (c) .wmv (d) .fiv
1. (b) and (c)
2. (a) and (b)
3. (a) and (d)
4.(c) and (d)
Answer: 2

Q.49. In a computer, if 8 bits are used to specify address in memory , the total number of addresses will be :
1. 8
2. 256
3. 216
4. 512
Answer: 2

Q.50. The National Knowledge Commission (NKC) was established in which year ?
1. 1998
2. 2007
3. 2000
4. 2005
Answer: 4


NTA also conduct jee, cmat,neet ,etc exams

overall NTA UGC NET QUESTION PAPER 1 DECEMBER 2018 was moderate level, it is quite easy for BTech aspirants because mathematical type questions are 50%.

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